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You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.

You have an existing Azure AD conditional access policy named Policy1. Policy1 enforces the use of Azure AD-joined devices when members of the Global Administrators group authenticate to Azure AD from untrusted locations.

You need to ensure that members of the Global Administrators group will also be forced to use multi-factor authentication when authenticating from untrusted locations.

What should you do?

A. From the Azure portal, modify session control of Policy1.

B. From multi-factor authentication page, modify the user settings.

C. From multi-factor authentication page, modify the service settings.

D. From the Azure portal, modify grant control of Policy1.

Answer: D

You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is in a resource group named RG1.

VM1 runs services that will be used to deploy resources to RG1. You need to ensure that a service running on VM1 can manage the resources in RG1 by using the identity of VM1.

What should you do first?

A. From the Azure portal, modify the Access control (IAM) settings of RG1.

B. From the Azure portal, modify the Policies settings of RG1.

C. From the Azure portal, modify the Access control (IAM) settings of VM1.

D. From the Azure portal, modify the value of the Managed Service Identity option for VM1.

Answer: D

You have a Microsoft SQL Server Always On availability group on Azure virtual machines.

You need to configure an Azure internal load balancer as a listener for the availability group.

What should you do?

A. Create an HTTP health probe on port 1433.

B. Set Session persistence to Client IP.

C. Set Session persistence to Client IP and protocol.

D. Enable Floating IP.

Answer: D

You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All administrators must enter a verification code to access the Azure portal. You need to ensure that the administrators can access the Azure portal only from your on-premises network.

What should you configure?

A. the default for all the roles in Azure AD Privileged Identity Management

B. an Azure AD Identity Protection user risk policy

C. an Azure AD Identity Protection sign-in risk policy

D. the multi-factor authentication service settings

Answer: D

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Which are two characteristics of a RAID-5 storage configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Data remain available with the loss to two storage devices.

B. It uses less storage capacity than mirroring with the same level of availability.

C. Data is striped across multiple storage devices.

D. It requires a minimum of five storage devices.

Answer: BC

What are two ways to examine the storage policy compliance of a virtual machine? (Choose two.)

A. 1. Browse to the virtual machine in the vSphere Web Client navigator.

2. On the Summary tab, examine the value of the VM Storage Policy Compliance property under VM Storage Policies.

B. 1. Browse to the virtual machine in the vSphere Web Client navigator.

2. Right-click the virtual machine and select "Check storage policy compliance".

C. 1. In the vSphere Web Client, navigate to the vSAN cluster.

2. On the Storage tab, click vSAN and select Virtual Disks.

3. Right-click on the virtual machine and select "Compliance status".

D. 1. In the vSphere Web Client, navigate to the vSAN cluster.

2. On the Monitor tab, click vSAN and select Virtual Objects.

3. Select a virtual object.

4. Examine the value in the Compliance Status property for the object.

Answer: AB

The following are the configuration details for a 10-node all-flash vSAN cluster:

All hosts contain one vSAN disk group. Each disk group has 400GB for the cache tier and 1600GB for the capacity tier.

A host in the cluster is placed into maintenance mode. The maintenance mode option selected is "Ensure data accessibility from other hosts".

How much is the vSAN datastore raw capacity reduced while the host is in maintenance mode?

A. 1600GB

B. 400GB

C. 0GB

D. 2000GB

Answer: A

Consider the following vSAN cluster scenario:

- All hosts are members of the same cluster.

- All hosts are contributing storage capacity to the vSAN datastore.

- There is not vSAN Witness Host.

- All virtual machines are assigned a storage policy where Primary level of failures to tolerate = 1.

What is the minimum number of physical hosts required to be a supported vSAN configuration?

A. Five (5)

B. Three (3)

C. Two (2)

D. Four (4)

Answer: B

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You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster. The duster contains Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2016 Datacenter. The hosts are licensed under a Microsoft Enterprise Agreement that has Software Assurance,

The Hyper-V cluster contains 30 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Each virtual machine runs a different workload. The workloads have predictable consumption patterns.

You plan to replace the virtual machines with Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. The virtual machines will be Sized according to the consumption pattern Of each workload.

You need to recommend a solution to minimize the compute costs of the Azure virtual machines

Which two recommendations should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Configure a spending limit in the Azure account center.

B. Activate Azure Hybrid Benefit for The Azure virtual machines.

C. Purchase Azure Reserved Virtual Machine Instances for the Azure virtual machines.

D. Create a lab in Azure DevTest Labs and place the Azure vinual machines in the lab.

E. Create a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.

Answer: BC

You are developing a .NET Core on-premises application that updates multiple Azure SQL Database instances. The application must log all update commands attempted to a separate Azure SQL Database instance named AuditDb.

You define an outer TransactionScope with a loop to enumerate and run the SQL commands on each customer database connection and an inner TransactionScope to record all transactions attempted within the outer TransactionScope to the AuditDb database.

You need to develop a method to perform the updates to the databases.

The solution must meet the following requirements:

• All rows written to the AuditDb database must be committed even if the outer transaction tails.

• If an error occurs writing to the AuditDb database, the outer transaction must be rolled back

• If an error occurs writing to the Customer databases only the outer transaction must be rolled back

• Values for TransactionScopeOption must be specified for the customer databases,

• Values tor TransactionScopeOptton must be specified for the AuditDb database.

Which TransactionScopeOption values should you use?

A. Required for CustomerTranScopeOption and Required for AuditTranScopeOption

B. Required for CustomerTranScopeOption and Suppress for AuditTranScopeOption

C. Suppress for CustomerTranScopeOption and Suppress for AuditTranScopeOption

D. Suppress for CustomerTranScopeOption and RequiresNew tor AuditTranScopeOption

Answer: A

You have 100 Azure virtual machines. Each virtual machine has two network adapters.

You need to increase the network performance of the workloads running on the virtual machines.

The solution must meet the following requirements:

• The CPU-to-memory ratio must remain the same.

• The solution must minimize costs.

What should you do?

A. Configure NIC teaming.

B. Enable SR-IOV

C. Install an additional network adapter.

D. Enable ROMA over InfiniBand.

Answer: B

You host an on-premises ASP.NET Web API at the company headquarters. The Web API is consumed by applications running at the companys branch Offices using the Azure Relay service. All the users of the applications are on the same Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

You need to ensure that the applications can consume the Web APL

What should you do?

A. Create separate Azure AD groups named Senders and Receivers In Access Control (IAM) for the Relay namespace, assign Senders the Reader role and assign Receivers the Reader role.

B. Create a Shared Access policy for Send permissions and another for Receive permissions.

C. Create dedicated Azure AD identities named Sender and Receiver. Assign Sender the Azure AD Identity Reader role. Assign Receiver the Azure AD Identity Reader role. Configure applications to use the respective Identities.

D. Create a Shared Access policy for the namespace. use a connection string in Web API and use a different connection string in consumer applications.

Answer: B

You have implemented code that uses elastic transactions spanning across three different Azure SQL Database logical servers.

Database administrators report that some transactions take longer to complete than expected.

You need to use the correct tool to monitor all the transactions originating from the elastic transaction implementation.

Which tool should you use?

A. Run the sys dynamic management view

B. Use the dependencies section of Azure Applications Insights.

C. Run the sys dynamic management view.

D. Run the sys dynamic management View.

Answer: ACD

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A customer wants to virtualize their storage environment and would like to use NPIV.

Where will the storage multipathing software run?

A. VIOS

B. Storage controller

C. Power Hypervisor

D. Client LPAR

Answer: A

Which capability is used to reallocate memory capacity from one LPAR to another?

A. Live Partition Mobility

B. Active Memory Expansion

C. Dynamic Logical Partitioning

D. Active Memory Mirroring

Answer: C

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A. The XML configuration file can be downloaded from the ESS (My Entitled Systems Support) web site.

B. One Enterprise pool can contain the following machine types: Power Systems E870, E870C, E880, E880C. and E980.

C. Mobile activations can be moved within a pool at any time, without contacting IBM.

D. A minimum of 75% of a system's memory activation can be mobile.

Answer: C

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A. vSwitch

B. Standalone SR-IOV without VIOS

C. Proxy ARP

D. SEA

Answer: A

Which of the following statements is true regarding Dynamic Logical Partitioning (DLPAR)?

A. In a disaster it will immediately move active LPARs from a local system to a remote system, over the network with only a pause in service.

B. In a disaster, it will immediately move active LPARs from a local system to another local system, using a common SAN, with only a pause in service.

C. It enables the relocation of resources such as CPU and memory between LPARs as required, without an interruption in service

D. It will automatically allocate an unlicensed processor to an LPAR to replace one that has reached the threshold for errors.

Answer: D

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A Citrix Engineer has received the following message after setting up Application Firewall in Learning mode.

August 28 6 03:14:27 XXX.0.0.2.08/28/2017:03:14:27 GMT VPXExtProd01 0-PPE-0: default GUI CMD_EXECUTED 1670370 0: User CitrixAdmin- Remote_ip XXX.19.XXX.XXX-Command “show appfw learningdata WebPub_vs_af_1 startURL”- Status “ERROR: Communication error with aslearn”

What can the engineer perform to resolve the issue?

A. Reinstall the Application Firewall license.

B. Reboot the NetScaler appliance.

C. Disable the Application Firewall feature.

D. Delete the Profile database and restart the aslearn process.

Answer: B

Which two security checks invoke sessionization? (Choose two.)

A. CSRF Form Tagging

B. Field Formats

C. Form Field Consistency

D. HTML Cross-Site Scripting

Answer: A,C

Which NetScaler Management Analytics System (NMAS) feature can the Citrix Engineer use to convert configuration tasks performed using the GUI to CLI commands?

A. Master Configuration

B. Inbuilt Template

C. Record-and-Play

D. Configuration Template

Answer: C

Which two settings can be used when creating a Cache Content group? (Choose two.)

A. Remove response cookies

B. Set Lazy DNS resolution

C. Expire cookies

D. Use DNS Query

E. Use browser settings

Answer: A,B

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to configure Application Firewall to handle SQL injection issues. However, after enabling SQL injection check, the backend server started dropping user requests.

The Application Firewall configuration is as follows:

add appfw profile Test123 –startURLAction none- denyURLAction none-crossSiteScriptingAction none –SQLInjectionAction log stats- SQLInjection TransformSpecialChars ON –SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON- fieldFormatAction none- bufferOverflowAction none- responseContentType “application/octet-stream” –XMLSQLInjectionAction none- XMLXSSAction none-XMLWSIAction none- XMLValidationAction none

What does the engineer need to change in the Application Firewall configuration?

A. Enable-XMLSQLInjectionAction none

B. Enable-XMLValidationAction none

C. Disable- SQLInjectionCheckSQLWildChars ON

D. Disable- SQLInjectionTransformSpecialChars ON

Answer: C

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A penetration tester has gained access to a marketing employee’s device. The penetration tester wants to ensure that if the access is discovered, control of the device can be regained.

Which of the actions should the penetration tester use to maintain persistence to the device? (Select TWO)

A. Place an entry in HKLMSoftware MicrosoftCurrentVersionRun to call au57d.ps1.

B. Place an entry in C:windowssystem32driversetchosts for 12.17.20.10 badcomptia.com

C. Place a script in C:users%usernamelocalappdataroamingtemplau57d.ps1

D. Create a fake service in Windows called RTAudio to execute manually

E. Place an entry for RTAudio in HKLMCurrentControlSetServicesRTAudio.

F. Create a schedule task to call C:wwindowssystem32driversetchosts

Answer: AB

A penetration tester has performed a security assessment for a startup firm. The report lists a total of ten vulnerabilities, with five identified as critical. The client does not have the remediate to immediately remediate all vulnerabilities.

Under such circumstances which of the following would be the BEST suggestion for the client?

A. Apply easy compensating controls for critical vulnerabilities to minimize the risk, and then reprioritize remediation

B. Identify the issues that can be remediated most quickly and address them first.

C. Implement the least impactful of the critical vulnerabilities' remediations first, and then address other critical vulnerabilities

D. Fix the most critical vulnerability first, even if it means fixing the other vulnerabilities may take a very long time.

Answer: D

A penetration tester wants to target NETBIOS name service.

Which of the following is the MOST likely command to exploit the NETBIOS name service?

A. arpspoof

B. nmap

C. responder

D. burpsuite

Answer: C

A security analyst was provided with a detailed penetration report, which was performed against the organization’s DMZ environment. It was noted on the report that a finding has a CVSS base score of 100.

Which of the following levels of difficulty would be required to exploit this vulnerability?

A. Very difficult; perimeter systems are usually behind a firewall

B. Somewhat difficult, would require significant processing power to exploit

C. Trivial, little effort is required to exploit this finding

D. Impossible; external hosts are hardened to protect against attacks 

Answer: C

Which of the following is the reason why a penetration tester would run the chkconfig --del servicename command at the end of an engagement?

A. To remove the persistence

B. To enable persistence

C. To report persistence

D. To check for persistence

Answer: A

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CORRECT TEXT

Which git sub command copies a local commit to a remote repository? (Specify ONLY the sub command without any path or parameters.)

A.clone

Answer: A

Which statements are true regarding databases during the deployment of a new release of a service using canary deployment? (Choose two correct answers.)

A. Changes to the database schema can take long and reduce the database performance.

B. Traffic to the database will significantly increase because of the additional service instance.

C. The database schema must be compatible to all running versions of a service.

D. The database is locked while its content is copied to the canary database.

E. Canary deployments require two synchronized instances of each database.

Answer: B,E

Which of the following statements regarding microservices are true? (Choose three correct answers.)

A. Microservices facilitate the replacement of the implementation of a specific functionality.

B. Microservices applications are hard to scale because microservice architecture allow only one instance of each microservice.

C. Integration tests for microservices are not possible until all microservices forming a specific application are completely developed.

D. Interaction between microservices can be slower that the interaction of similar components within a monolithic application.

E. Within one application, individual microservices can be updated and redeployed independent of the remaining microservices.

Answer: C,D,E

Which of the following statements are true about Jenkins? (Choose two correct answers.)

A. Jenkins is specific to Java based applications.

B. Jenkins can delegate tasks to slave nodes.

C. Jenkins only works on local files and cannot use SCM repositories.

D. Jenkins’ functionality is determined by plugins.

E. Jenkins includes a series of integrated testing suites.

Answer: B,E

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Which of the following statements is incorrect about the FusionSphere OpenStack network?

A. In FusionSphere OpenStack, physical networks define mappings between virtual networks and host physical network ports．

B. VMS can directly use physical networks.

C. A physical network is mapped to a physical network port or port bonding.

D. NO matter on which host a VM is running, the VM ca n communicate with external networks using the same physical network.

Answer: B

eSight can uniformly monitor, configure, and manage various types of devices from multiple vendors.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: A

When an enterprise IT system is moved to the cloud, services will be migrated accordingly. The specific migration objects include the basic IT service, office system, service production system, development and test system, and management system ．

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: A

Storage devices in FusionCompute need to be scanned. These devices refer to physical storage devices, such as IP SAN, AdvancedSAN, and NAS.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: B

Which of the following is not a default role of FusionSphere OpenStack 0M?

A. administrator

B. operator

C. vdcmanager

D. VRManager

Answer: D

Which of the following services is not provided by PaaS?

A. Middleware

B. Database

C. Security

D. Development tool

Answer: C

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An administrator needs to install View Composer. The current environment uses a vCenter Server appliance and four ESXi hosts.

Which two steps should the administrator take to complete the installation? (Choose two.)

A. Log in using a domain useraccount with local Administrator privileges.

B. Install the View Composer server on the vCenter Server.

C. Log in using Administrator@vsphere.local.

D. Install the View Composer server on a standalone Windows server.

Answer: A,D

What two prerequisites must be met before View Composer can be installed? (Choose two.)

A. No other application on the View Composer server should use Windows SSLv2 libraries.

B. A domain useraccount with Administrator privileges on the system must be used.

C. No other application on the View Composer server should use OpenSSLv2 libraries.

D. A local user account with Administrator privileges on the system must be used.

Answer: A,B

An administrator needs to provide access to a View virtual desktop for users in Domain A and Domain B.

How should the administrator configure the domains and the View implementation?

A. Install a View Connection Server in a resource domain and create a one-way trust to both Domain A and Domain B.

B. Install a View Connection Server in Domain A and create a one-way trust to Domain B.

C. Install a View Connection Server in DomainA and create a two-way trust between Domain A and Domain B.

D. Install a View Connection Server in a resource domain and create a two-way transitive trust between Domain A and Domain B.

Answer: C

An administrator is performing a silent installation of a View Connection Server and needs to ensure that the firewall settings are enabled during the install.

Which parameter should the administrator use?

A. FWCHOICE=0

B. FWCHOICE=1

C. FW_SET=0

D. FW_SET=1

Answer: B

Which prerequisite must an administrator verify before installing a View Connection server?

A. Internet Information Services (IIS)

B. Dynamic IP address

C. Apache Web Server

D. Static IP address

Answer: D

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Which of the following grade-based security protection has been added new content related to virtualization security?

A. Level 1 Protection

B. Level 2 Protection

C. Level 3 Protection

D. Level 4 Protection

Answer: C

Which of the following are the services that only VPC's routing network can provide for tenants? (Multiple Choice)

A. EIP

B. SNAT

C. Security Group

D. vRouter

Answer: AB

Which of the following is not a consideration when planning for available partitions in a cloud data center scenario?

A. Based on reliability, engineering interconnection

B. Based on the 2-layer network range

C. Based on the resource SLA capabilities

D. Based on different storage types

Answer: D

Which of the following description of the challenges for the cloud data center network is wrong?

A. Big data requires big pipes

B. Business innovation requires network agility

C. Diversification requires an open network

D. Cloud data center requires the device to fully support forwarding control separation

Answer: D

In the Huawei SDN solution, the Overlay network uses the VXLAN protocol. What is the correct description of its control plane? (Multiple Choice)

A. There are two ways to establish a tunnel for the outer packaging: static configuration and protocol dynamic creation.

B. For inner packaging, MAC layer addressing routing can use data flow and ARP self-learning.

C. For inner packaging, local self-learning and protocol global advertising can be used.

D. For inner packaging, the IP layer addressing routing (routing) is the same as the traditional IP layer, namely static routing or dynamic routing protocol.

Answer: ABCD

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The OptiX OSN 6800 subrack supports seven pairs of dual slots: IU1 and IU2, IU3 and IU4, IU5 and IU6, IU7 and IU8, IU11 and IU12, IU13 and IU14, IU15 and IU16. The electrical service that can be scheduled between dual slots is the GE/ Any/ ODU1 signal. You do not need to configure an XCS board when you use a dual slot to schedule a layer service.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

Use OSC monitoring, run HWECC protocol of NG WDM network, which of the following does not generally result in ECC communication interrupt?

A. network element ID duplication

B. network element IP duplication

C. pigtail failure of OSC veneer

D. SCC veneer failure

E. OSC veneer failure

Answer: B

Optix OSN 8800 T64 sub-rack ID achieved by DIP switches on the AUX veneer .

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

For the system 24 hours without error loopback performance test, which of the following statement is correct? (Multiple choice)

A. The test is also for each channel, we can use multi-channel series together for testing.

B. Test time is generally set to 24 hours, the test is generally required after the completion of system commissioning, then the optical power per channel should be the best value.

C. The number of channel concatenation is no more than 16, and the channel bearer service type can be different.

D. Optical port from the ring do not have to add fixed light attenuator.

Answer: AB

About the operation of deleting the path from the network management, the following statement wrong is ( ) .

A. delete path from network layer only delete the wavelength division path of the network management side network layer.

B. delete path from network elements layer will delete the path of the network elements side and network elements layer.

C. after deleting path from network layer, will not interrupt business.

D. after deleting path from network layer and network elements, will all interrupt business.

Answer: D

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Which of the following is the multicast distribution tree maintained by PIM-DM?

A.SFT

B. CBT

C. RFT

D. STP

Answer: A

Enabling MD5 authentication between BGP peers can prevent DoS attacks that target BGP peers.

A.TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: A

Which of the following statements are correct regarding OSPF intra-area route calculation? (Select 2 answers)

A.Each OSPF router uses only one Router LSA to describe the local active link state for an area.

B. Each OSPF router uses more than one Router LSA to describe local active link state for an area.

C. One Router LSA describes only one link,

D. One Router LSA describes more than one link.

Answer: A, D

Which of the following is the address range assigned by IANA for SSM service in IPv4?

A.232.0.0.0/24

B. 225.0.0.0/8

C. 232.0.0.0/8

D. 239.0.0.0/8

Answer: D

Which of the following are multicast routing protocols? (Select 3 answers)

A.DVMRP

B. PIM-DM

C. OSPF

D. PIM-SM

Answer: A, B, D

Which of the following route entries match the IP-Prefix defined below? ip ip-prefix test index 10 permit 192.168.0.0 16 greater-equal 24 less-equal 28 (Select 2 answers)

A.192.168.1.0/24

B. 192.10.2.0/24

C. 192.168.3.0/25

D. 192.168.4.0/30

Answer: A, C

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